HS REVIEW 2

Question 1

5 out of 5 points

	An eruption of extremely painful vesicles that occur in a band-like unilateral pattern along the course of a peripheral nerve is
	Selected Answer: C. Herpes Zoster Answers: A. Scabies B. Pediculosis C. Herpes Zoster D. Acne Vulgaris

Question 2

5 out of 5 points

	Common symptoms of dermatitis is/are:
	Selected Answer: A. Pruritus Answers: A. Pruritus B. Fever C. Severe pain D. Numbness

Question 3

5 out of 5 points

	The main function of the subcutaneous layer of the skin is
	Selected Answer: C. Cold protection Answers: A. Water balance B. Vitamin D synthesis C. Cold protection D. Waste removal

Question 4

0 out of 5 points

	A bleeding disorder which causes hemorrhage into the skin and other tissues is called
	Selected Answer: A. Hemangioma Answers: A. Hemangioma B. Purpura C. Hematopoeisis D. Hematoma

Question 5

5 out of 5 points

	The most common type of skin cancer is
	Selected Answer: A. Basal cell carcinoma Answers: A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Malignant melanoma D. Adenocarcinoma

Question 6

5 out of 5 points

	Which of the following conditions is likely to require surgical intervention?
	Selected Answer: C. Abscess Answers: A. Atopic dermatitis B. Impetigo C. Abscess D. Urticaria

Question 7

5 out of 5 points

	An adverse reaction to a therapeutic regimen is called:
	Selected Answer: C. Iatrogenic Answers: A. Pathogenesis B. Idiopathic C. Iatrogenic D. Malpractice

Question 8

0 out of 5 points

	Skin lesions are caused by:
	Selected Answer: A. Bacteria Answers: A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Chemicals D. All of the above

Question 9

5 out of 5 points

	Which of the following skin conditions is most dangerous in terms of metastasis and potential death?
	Selected Answer: D. Malignant melanoma Answers: A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Actinic keratoses D. Malignant melanoma

Question 10

5 out of 5 points

	Sweat glands and blood vessels are located in the:
	Selected Answer: B. Dermis layer Answers: A. Epidermis layer B. Dermis layer C. Epidermis and dermis layers D. Subcutaneous tissue

Question 11

5 out of 5 points

	What may be the outcome of untreated Lyme disease?
	Selected Answer: B. Arthritis Answers: A. Brain tumor B. Arthritis C. Urinary retention D. Skin rash

Question 12

5 out of 5 points

	An infection arises from:
	Selected Answer: A. Micro-organism invasion Answers: A. Micro-organism invasion B. Bodily injury C. Chilling D. Poor hygiene

Question 13

5 out of 5 points

	The most common symptom of malignant melanoma is
	Selected Answer: D. A change in a new or existing pigmented lesion or mole Answers: A. A smooth, symmetrical growth in all directions B. Inflammation and bleeding of a skin lesion C. Hard surfaced nodules with visible scales D. A change in a new or existing pigmented lesion or mole

Question 14

5 out of 5 points

	A plantar wart appears on the
	Selected Answer: B. Sole of the foot Answers: A. Palm of the hand B. Sole of the foot C. Heel of the foot D. Dorsal part of the hand

Question 15

5 out of 5 points

	A disease of unknown etiology is called:
	Selected Answer: A. Idiopathic Answers: A. Idiopathic B. Iatrogenic C. Pathogenesis D. Nosocomial

Question 16

5 out of 5 points

	Kaposi sarcoma is associated with:
	Selected Answer: A. AIDS Answers: A. AIDS B. Lupus Erythematosis C. Hyperthyroidism D. Melanoma

Question 17

5 out of 5 points

	Actinic keratoses (is)
	Selected Answer: B. Caused by unprotected sun exposure Answers: A. Occurs in all age groups B. Caused by unprotected sun exposure C. Characterized by itchy , purple plaques D. Has no relationship to skin cancer

Question 18

0 out of 5 points

	Inflammation is manifested by:
	Selected Answer: D. All of the above Answers: A. Fever B. Redness C. Pallor D. All of the above

Question 19

5 out of 5 points

	Which of the following is an antihistamine prescribed to relieve itching and allergic symptoms?
	Selected Answer: D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) Answers: A. Epinephrine B. Prednisone C. Penicillin D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Question 20

5 out of 5 points

	An example of an allergic contact dermatitis is:
	Selected Answer: C. Poison ivy Answers: A. Paronychia B. Acne C. Poison ivy D. Verruca vulgaris

Question 1

5 out of 5 points

	A major complication of hypertension is
	Selected Answer: B. Heart Failure Answers: A. Mitral Stenosis B. Heart Failure C. Dyspnea D. Bradycardia

Question 2

0 out of 5 points

	Congestive heart failure refers to:
	Selected Answer: A. Aortic insufficiency Answers: A. Aortic insufficiency B. Left ventricular failure C. Cor Pulmonale D. Pulmonary embolization

Question 3

0 out of 5 points

	Cor pulmonale will cause right ventricular hypertrophy which will lead to:
	Selected Answer: D. Headache Answers: A. Leg and feet swelling B. Cough and congestion C. Weight loss D. Headache

Question 4

5 out of 5 points

	The most common symptom of coronary artery disease is:
	Selected Answer: A. Angina Pectoris Answers: A. Angina Pectoris B. Headache C. Nausea D. Hypotension

Question 5

5 out of 5 points

	The individual who experiences dizziness when changing positions most likely has
	Selected Answer: B. Orthostatic Hypotension Answers: A. Hypertension B. Orthostatic Hypotension C. Tachycardia D. Overhydration

Question 6

5 out of 5 points

	The initial reason for the chest pain associated with a heart attack is
	Selected Answer: A. Ischemia Answers: A. Ischemia B. Pressure on the nerves C. Necrosis D. Accumulation of fluid in the pericardium

Question 7

5 out of 5 points

	When the pumping action of the heart is inadequate, which of the following conditions can you expect?
	Selected Answer: B. Congestive Heart Failure Answers: A. Cerebral Infarction B. Congestive Heart Failure C. Mitral Valvular Stenosis D. Pulmonary Embolism

Question 8

5 out of 5 points

	The goal of a bypass graft surgical procedure is to
	Selected Answer: B. Surgically create an alternate blood flow route Answers: A. Surgically replace a diseased artery B. Surgically create an alternate blood flow route C. Remove arterial plaque D. Promote blood flow by using a stent

Question 9

5 out of 5 points

	Which of the following risk factors most significantly contributes to heart disease?
	Selected Answer: D. Smoking cigarettes Answers: A. Drinking too little water B. Being female C. Using sugar D. Smoking cigarettes

Question 10

5 out of 5 points

	An angioplasty is done to:
	Selected Answer: C. Promote arterial patency Answers: A. Vasoconstrict an occluded artery B. Bypass a diseased portion of a vein C. Promote arterial patency D. Treat saphenous varicosities

Question 11

5 out of 5 points

	A myocardial infarction is diagnosed by a/an
	Selected Answer: B. Electrocardiogram * Answers: A. Chest X-Ray B. Electrocardiogram * C. Serum Cholesterol D. Complaints of sub-sternal chest pain

Question 12

0 out of 5 points

	A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) causes
	Selected Answer: D. Venous rupture Answers: A. Vasodilation B. Venous inflammation C. Plaque development D. Venous rupture

Question 13

5 out of 5 points

	A significant cause of atherosclerosis is:
	Selected Answer: B. Hypertension Answers: A. Sodium-rich diet B. Hypertension C. Kidney Disease D. Stress

Question 14

5 out of 5 points

	When aspirin is prescribed daily for the patient with cardio-vascular disease, the expected outcome is
	Selected Answer: A. Thin blood Answers: A. Thin blood B. Absence of pain C. Vasodilation D. Vasoconstriction

Question 15

0 out of 5 points

	When the heart beats before its time it is termed
	Selected Answer: B. Ventricular tachycardia Answers: A. Second degree heart block B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Premature ventricular contraction D. Atrial fibrillation

Question 16

5 out of 5 points

	The triad of symptoms associated with a Myocardial Infarction is
	Selected Answer: D. Angina, dyspnea, sweating Answers: A. Fatigue, anorexia, chest pain B. Heartburn, sweating, nausea C. Chest pain, fatigue, nausea D. Angina, dyspnea, sweating

Question 17

0 out of 5 points

	Which of the following is associated with hypovolemic shock?
	Selected Answer: A. Vasodilation Answers: A. Vasodilation B. Tachycardia C. Cerebral Perfusion D. Hypertension

Question 18

5 out of 5 points

	The patient is going into shock. The care provider would expect her blood pressure to:
	Selected Answer: C. Be decreased Answers: A. Remain the same B. Be elevated C. Be decreased D. Fluctuate

Question 19

5 out of 5 points

	An aneurysm is defined as a
	Selected Answer: B. Ballooning out of an artery Answers: A. Tumor within an artery B. Ballooning out of an artery C. Constriction of a blood vessel D. Plaque within the abdominal aorta

Question 20

0 out of 5 points

	The goal of vascular surgery is to
	Selected Answer: A. Relieve pain Answers: A. Relieve pain B. Restore blood flow C. Counteract degeneration D. Prevent infection

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

	Palliative treatment of cancer is aimed at
	Selected Answer: A. Symptomatic relief Answers: A. Symptomatic relief B. Remission C. Curative D. Prevention

Question 2

0 out of 1 points

	The manifestations of inflammation include
	Selected Answer: A. Fever Answers: A. Fever B. Pallor C. Swelling D. Numbness

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

	The virulence of a pathogen determines its
	Selected Answer: A. Strength Answers: A. Strength B. Sensitivity to antibiotics C. Category within the classification of antibiotics D. All of the included answers

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

	The cause of cancer is
	Selected Answer: A. Unknown Answers: A. Unknown B. Weakened immune system C. Cellular mutation D. Chronic inflammation E. Cigarette smoking

Question 5

0 out of 1 points

	The theory/theories of the pathophysiology of chronic fatigue syndrome is/are
	Selected Answer: A. Appearance of infection without one Answers: A. Appearance of infection without one B. Low levels of cortisol C. Elevated levels of T-cells D. All of the included answers

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

	When a child receives a vaccine for measles, he is said to have immunity which is
	Selected Answer: C. Active artificial Answers: A. Passive natural B. Passive artificial C. Active artificial D. Active natural

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

	An auto immune disorder is one in which the body
	Selected Answer: B. Attacks itself Answers: A. Cures itself B. Attacks itself C. Develops antibodies D. Produces cortisol

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

	Phagocytosis (cell eating) is initiated by the presence of
	Selected Answer: D. Neutrophils Answers: A. Granulocytes B. Hemoglobin C. Reticulocytes D. Neutrophils

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

	When an inflammatory process begins there is a release of
	Selected Answer: A. Histamine Answers: A. Histamine B. Glucose C. Mast cells D. Red blood cells (RBC’s)

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

	The metastasis of cancer occurs via
	Selected Answer: D. All of the included answers Answers: A. Lymphatic system B. Bloodstream C. Invasion into a fluid filled cavity D. All of the included answers

Question 11

0 out of 1 points

	Identification and best treatment of a pathogen is determined by a
	Selected Answer: D. Skin testing Answers: A. Culture and sensitivity B. Biopsy C. WBC and differential D. Skin testing

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

	The number 1 cause of cancer deaths is
	Selected Answer: B. Lung Answers: A. Colon B. Lung C. Prostate D. Breast

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

	Debridement is defined as
	Selected Answer: B. Cutting away necrotic tissue Answers: A. Death of tissue B. Cutting away necrotic tissue C. Skin grafting D. Separation of tissue margins

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

	Microorganisms which produce disease are called
	Selected Answer: C. Pathogens Answers: A. Opportunistic B. Parasitic C. Pathogens D. Bacteria

Question 15

0 out of 1 points

	Treatment of cancers include
	Selected Answer: D. Radiation Answers: A. Hormones B. Antibiotics C. Steroids D. Radiation E. All of the included answers

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

	An early manifestation of cancer is
	Selected Answer: B. There are no early signs Answers: A. Pain B. There are no early signs C. Obstruction D. Anemia E. Swelling

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

	Adhesions occur most often following
	Selected Answer: C. Abdominal surgery Answers: A. Keloid formation B. Infections C. Abdominal surgery D. Healing by secondary intention

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

	Which of the following grades of cancer has the worst prognosis?
	Selected Answer: C. Undifferentiated Answers: A. Differentiated B. Grade II C. Undifferentiated D. Dysplastic

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

	A neoplasm is defined as a
	Selected Answer: C. New Growth Answers: A. Malignant tumor B. Benign tumor C. New Growth D. Lesion E. All of the included answers

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

	The smallest infective organism is the
	Selected Answer: B. Virus Answers: A. Rickettsia B. Virus C. Protozoa D. Fungus

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

	The blood study which reveals infection is the
	Selected Answer: A. WBC Answers: A. WBC B. RBC C. Granulocyte D. Eosinophil

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

	Which of the following cells is responsible for antibody formation?
	Selected Answer: A. Lymphocytes Answers: A. Lymphocytes B. Monocytes C. Eosinophils D. Basophils

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

	Beneficial bacteria living in and on the body are referred to as
	Selected Answer: D. Normal flora Answers: A. Parasitic B. Symbiotic C. Opportunistic D. Normal flora

Question 24

0 out of 1 points

	Inflammation is a response to
	Selected Answer: D. All of the included answers Answers: A. Environmental changes B. Scab formation C. Tissue trauma D. All of the included answers

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

	The cause of Lupus Erythematosis is
	Selected Answer: A. Idiopathic Answers: A. Idiopathic B. Iatrogenic C. Bacterial D. Viral

Question 1

5 out of 5 points

	The most common, early presenting symptom of endometrial cancer is:
	Selected Answer: C. Peri or post menopausal uterine bleeding Answers: A. Ascites and bloating B. Pain and back pressure C. Peri or post menopausal uterine bleeding D. Foul smelling, purulent, vaginal discharge

Question 2

5 out of 5 points

	Failure to seek treatment for gonorrhea can result in complications which include
	Selected Answer: A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) Answers: A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) B. Cancer of the fallopian tubes C. Dementia D. Endometriosis

Question 3

5 out of 5 points

	Testicular cancers are most common in which age group?
	Selected Answer: A. 20-40’s Answers: A. 20-40’s B. 40-50’s C. 50-60’s D. 60 and older

Question 4

5 out of 5 points

	Which of the following is a major tool in diagnosing cervical cancer?
	Selected Answer: C. Papanicolaou smear Answers: A. Cervical culture and sensitivity B. Urinalysis C. Papanicolaou smear D. Venereal Disease Research Lab (VDRL)

Question 5

5 out of 5 points

	The diagnostic test that can visualize the cervical eplithelium, vagina, and vulval epithelium is called the
	Selected Answer: A. Colposcopy Answers: A. Colposcopy B. Hysteroscopy C. Laparoscopy D. Hystsrectomy

Question 6

5 out of 5 points

	Benign prostatic hypertrophy ( BPH) causes:
	Selected Answer: C. A weak stream of urine with inability to empty the bladder Answers: A. Acute onset of fever, pain, and malaise B. Swelling and tenderness of one or both testes C. A weak stream of urine with inability to empty the bladder D. Dehydration

Question 7

5 out of 5 points

	A radical mastectomy includes the removal of
	Selected Answer: C. Pectoral muscles Answers: A. Both breasts B. Both ovaries C. Pectoral muscles D. All of the above

Question 8

5 out of 5 points

	Which of the following statements is true regarding syphilis?
	Selected Answer: D. It can be treated effectively with a course of antibiotic therapy Answers: A. The cause and mode of transmission is unclear B. There is no known cure C. When the primary lesion heals the disease is considered cured D. It can be treated effectively with a course of antibiotic therapy

Question 9

5 out of 5 points

	The first sign of testicular cancer is
	Selected Answer: C. A painless lump in the testicle Answers: A. Sexual dysfunction B. Urinary incontinence C. A painless lump in the testicle D. A painful lump in the testicle

Question 10

5 out of 5 points

	Diagnostic evaluation for prostate cancer includes:
	Selected Answer: B. Blood testing for prostate specific antigen Answers: A. A urinalysis B. Blood testing for prostate specific antigen C. A biopsy of the testicle D. Serum white blood cell count

Question 11

5 out of 5 points

	Which of the following is true regarding breast cancer? Breast cancer is
	Selected Answer: A. The second leading cause of cancer deaths for women Answers: A. The second leading cause of cancer deaths for women B. Treated with surgery only C. A condition predominately in women under 40 years D. Caused by lack of estrogen

Question 12

5 out of 5 points

	Uterine prolapse, cystocele and rectocele all have which of the causative factors in common?
	Selected Answer: A. Pelvic floor muscles weakened by the trauma of childbirth Answers: A. Pelvic floor muscles weakened by the trauma of childbirth B. Past history of radiation therapy C. Early start of menstruation D. History of sexually transmitted disease (STD), such as chlamydia

Question 13

5 out of 5 points

	Ovarian cancer is difficult to diagnose due to
	Selected Answer: C. Ovary position Answers: A. Estrogen prevalence B. Progesterone prevalence C. Ovary position D. Oral contraceptives

Question 14

5 out of 5 points

	Toxic Shock Syndrome occurs less often now due to
	Selected Answer: C. Tampon changes Answers: A. Better hygienic practices B. Protected sex C. Tampon changes D. All of the above

Question 15

5 out of 5 points

	Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) is most often associated with cancer of the
	Selected Answer: D. Cervix Answers: A. Larynx B. Breast C. Stomach D. Cervix

Question 16

5 out of 5 points

	The sexually transmitted disease (STD) sometimes referred to as the “silent” STD is quite common and a leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is named
	Selected Answer: C. Chlamydia Answers: A. Genital herpes B. Trichomoniasis C. Chlamydia D. Syphilis

Question 17

5 out of 5 points

	The treatment of genital herpes is directed at
	Selected Answer: C. Reducing the duration and frequency of outbreaks Answers: A. Curing the disease B. Preventing transmission at all times C. Reducing the duration and frequency of outbreaks D. Avoiding re-infection

Question 18

5 out of 5 points

	Endometriosis can be found
	Selected Answer: D. All of the above Answers: A. Covering the outer uterus B. Interrupting the abdominal cavity C. implanting in the pelvic cavity D. All of the above

Question 19

5 out of 5 points

	Manifestations of acute prostatitis include
	Selected Answer: A. Dysuria Answers: A. Dysuria B. Testicular edema C. Distended bladder D. Polyuria

Question 20

5 out of 5 points

	A classic early sign of syphilis is:
	Selected Answer: D. Painless chancre of the genitalia Answers: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Rash on the palms of the hands C. Fever and headache D. Painless chancre of the genitalia

Question 1

5 out of 5 points

	Mr. Snow is diagnosed with erythrocytopenia. Without treatment which of the following conditions will eventually occur?
	Selected Answer: A. Anemia Correct Answer: A. Anemia

Question 2

5 out of 5 points

	Mr. Jones has secondary polycythemia. Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce secondary polycythemia?
	Selected Answer: A. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) Correct Answer: A. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

Question 3

5 out of 5 points

	Multiple myeloma will cause which of the following manifestations in Mrs. Pierce ?
	Selected Answer: E. All except D Correct Answer: E. All except D

Question 4

5 out of 5 points

	The treatment of hemorrhagic anemia is to
	Selected Answer: E. All of the above Correct Answer: E. All of the above

Question 5

5 out of 5 points

	Which of the following laboratory tests will Mr. Snow have first to diagnose why he has erythrocytopenia?
	Selected Answer: A. RBC indices Correct Answer: A. RBC indices

Question 6

0 out of 5 points

	Leukemia is defined as
	Selected Answer: A. Cancer of the blood cells Correct Answer: B. Malignant neoplasm of blood forming organs

Question 7

5 out of 5 points

	Ms. Smart is in an emergency situation requiring a transfusion. Her blood is typed as A. This means her blood has
	Selected Answer: C. A antigens and anti-B antibodies Correct Answer: C. A antigens and anti-B antibodies

Question 8

5 out of 5 points

	Mr. Jones’ condition of Secondary Polycythemia will most likely be treated with
	Selected Answer: C. Phlebotomy or blood donation Correct Answer: C. Phlebotomy or blood donation

Question 9

0 out of 5 points

	The hematologic system consists of
	Selected Answer: B. Blood-forming organs Correct Answer: E. All of the above

Question 10

5 out of 5 points

	Blood viscosity refers to
	Selected Answer: D. Thickness Correct Answer: D. Thickness

Question 11

5 out of 5 points

	Which of the following factors pertain to Pernicious Anemia?
	Selected Answer: E. All of the above Correct Answer: E. All of the above

Question 12

0 out of 5 points

	Which substance of blood is most plentiful?
	Selected Answer: B. Formed elements Correct Answer: C. Plasma

Question 13

5 out of 5 points

	Components of leukocytes include
	Selected Answer: A. Monocytes Correct Answer: A. Monocytes

Question 14

5 out of 5 points

	All people with any type of anemia commonly complain of fatigue due to
	Selected Answer: D. Poor oxygenation of muscle Correct Answer: D. Poor oxygenation of muscle

Question 15

0 out of 5 points

	The best way to prevent Mono is to
	Selected Answer: D. Stay away from crowds Correct Answer: C. Wash hands frequently

Question 16

5 out of 5 points

	The major function of erythrocytes is to
	Selected Answer: C. Transport oxygen Correct Answer: C. Transport oxygen

Question 17

5 out of 5 points

	Blood –Forming Organs include
	Selected Answer: D. Bone Marrow Correct Answer: D. Bone Marrow

Question 18

0 out of 5 points

	Hemolytic anemia is characterized by
	Selected Answer: E. B&C Correct Answer: B. Destruction of RBC’s

Question 19

5 out of 5 points

	Which of the following blood types may Ms. Smart safely receive?
	Selected Answer: E. A & D Correct Answer: E. A & D

Question 20

0 out of 5 points

	The diagnosis of Hodgkins Disease is made when there is
	Selected Answer: E. A&D Correct Answer: A. Reed-Sternberg cell on biopsy of lymph node