Babette's Definitely MAYBE!: REVIEW II

Which statement is NOT true of inclusion terms?

A) An “inclusion note” under a code indicates that the terms excluded from the code are to be coded elsewhere.
B) The terms may be included under certain four- and five-digit codes.
C) These terms are the conditions for which that code number is to be used.
D) The inclusion terms are not necessarily exhaustive.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	A

“_____” is used in the Alphabetic Index to provide guidance when two conditions are related or have a causal relationship.

A) Due to
B) See condition
C) See category
D) And

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	A

The letter X in ICD-10-CM can be found in the 5th or 6th character position.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	True

“_____” is a reference that instructs coders to look up another term to locate a code for a particular condition.

A) See category
B) And
C) See condition
D) Eponym

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	C

Some books are updated with replacement pages quarterly and may include references to Coding Clinic articles.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	True

_____ is (are) used in both the Index and Tabular List to enclose supplementary words that may be present or absent in the statement of a disease or procedure, without affecting the code assignment.

A) “Excludes”
B) Brackets
C) “Includes”
D) Parentheses

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

In ICD-10-CM, there are no supplementary classifications.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	True

The bolded subterm in the diagnostic statement aspiration pneumonia is a(n) _____ modifier.

A) essential
B) nonessential

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	A

The most commonly used etiology/manifestation combinations are the codes for _____, category 250.

A) heart disease
B) tachycardia
C) diabetes mellitus
D) hypertension

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	C

10.

There are manifestation codes that DO NOT have “in diseases classified elsewhere” in the title. For such codes, a “use additional code” note will still be present and the rules for sequencing still apply.

A) True
B) False

The main term in “sickle cell anemia” is:

A) sickle cell
B) sickle
C) cell
D) anemia

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

The main term is:

A) always identified in italics
B) a review of the patient’s hospital course
C) a term identifying disease conditions or injuries
D) a word found in parentheses that encloses explanatory information that does NOT affect the code

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	C

The first step in coding the principal diagnosis is to:

A) identify the diagnoses and the principal procedure
B) identify main term(s) in the Alphabetic Index
C) review the medical record
D) review any subterms under the main term in the Index

Feedback: review the medical record

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	0.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	C

When evaluating an ER record, a coder should first check the:

A) diagnosis
B) chief complaint
C) probable diagnosis
D) differential diagnosis

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	B

The main term for procedures in ICD-9-CM is identified by the:

A) anatomic site
B) place of incision
C) procedure performed
D) None of the above is correct.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	C

What is the main term in the procedure “vaginal hysterectomy?”

A) Vaginal
B) Hysterectomy
C) Vaginal hysterectomy
D) None of the above

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	B

A coder must always remember that, once a term is located in the Alphabetic Index, the code must be verified in the Tabular List.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	True

Which of the following is (are) a reason(s) that the discharge summary is not the only document from which codes are captured?

A) Coders may not have a discharge summary at the time of coding.
B) If the patient is in the hospital for a long stay, often the attending physician will be focused only on those diagnoses that occurred in the latter part of the stay.
C) Physicians list diagnoses that are not currently being treated and are only in the patient’s history.
D) All of the above are correct.
E) Only A and C are correct.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

Exceptions to the general rule that main terms usually identify disease conditions are V codes.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	True

10.

Similar to ICD-9-CM, when assigning a procedure code, the coder must first start with the Alphabetic Index in ICD-10-PCS.

A) True
B) False

Code in both ICD 9 & 10: cognitive deficits due to previous CVA. ICD 9:. ICD 10: .

Feedback: The correct code assignment, ICD 9: 438.0 and ICD 10: I69.31

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	5.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	Box 1: 438.0; Box 2: I69.31

Code in both ICD 9 and ICD 10: acute and chronic cholecystitis. ICD 9: ICD 10:,.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	Box 1: 575.12; Box 2: K81.2

A(n) _____ effect is a residual effect (condition produced) after the acute phase of an illness or injury has terminated.

A) combination
B) acute
C) late
D) chronic

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	C

A patient is admitted to the hospital for bowel resection. This patient has Crohn’s disease, hypertension, and rheumatoid arthritis. In the OR before incision, the patient develops tachycardia, and the procedure is canceled. What is the principal diagnosis?.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	Crohn’s disease

Which of the following is exempt from “diagnosis present on admission” and stands for motor vehicle traffic accidents?

A) E810-E819
B) E810-E819
C) E840-E845
D) E800-E807

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	A

Code in both ICD 9 and ICD 10: post-traumatic arthritis due to previous left femoral neck fracture (hip) ICD 9: ,,ICD 10: ,.

Feedback: The correct code assignment ICD 9: 716.15, 905.3, ICD 10: M12.552 S72.002S

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	5.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	Box 1: 716.15; Box 2: 905.3; Box 3: M12.552; Box 4: S72.002S

Etiology/manifestation convention requires _____ code(s) to fully describe a single condition that affects multiple body systems.

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) none of the above

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	B

A patient comes to the hospital with unstable angina. Serial cardiac enzymes and EKGs are performed, and anterolateral myocardial infarction is confirmed. The patient develops congestive heart failure on day 2 of the hospital stay. What is the principal diagnosis?.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	Anterolateral myocardial infarction

Code: Thoracolumbar scoliosis (neuromuscular) due to past history of poliomyelitis.ICD 9: ,. ICD 10:,.

Feedback: The correct cod assignment: ICD 9: 138,737.43 ICD 10: M41.45, B91

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	5.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	Box 1: 138; Box 2: 737.43; Box 3: M41.45; Box 4: B91

10.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with vomiting, diarrhea, and an inability to eat or drink. IV fluids are administered, and the patient is put on bowel rest. The following day, the patient is discharged with a diagnosis of gastroenteritis and dehydration. What is the principal diagnosis?,.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	Box 1: Gastroenteritis; Box 2: Dehydration

_____ identifies procedure codes identified by the Medicare Code Editor as procedures covered under limited circumstances.

A) Bilateral procedure
B) Nonspecific OR procedure
C) Noncovered OR procedure
D) Limited coverage

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

During an endoscopic examination, when a scope is inserted and various body parts are examined, the coder would:

A) only code the procedure if it was performed in the operating room
B) code every body part that is viewed
C) not assign a code for a diagnostic procedure
D) code the farthest site that was examined

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

If a patient’s procedure is canceled before he or she shows up at the hospital, the correct V code to assign is:

A) V64.1 Surgical or other procedure not carried out because of contraindication
B) V64.2 Surgical or other procedure not carried out because of patient’s decision
C) V64.3 Procedure not carried out for other reasons
D) None of the above

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

If a surgical procedure was canceled because the patient developed atrial fibrillation before the start of the procedure, which V code would be assigned?

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	A

An additional code should always be assigned for closure of the surgical incision.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	False

Which of these is a true characteristic of a significant procedure?

A) Surgical in nature
B) Carries a procedural risk
C) Carries an anesthetic risk
D) Requires specialized training
E) All of the above

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	E

A _____ procedure is one that was performed for definitive treatment rather than one performed for diagnostic or exploratory purposes or that was necessary to take care of a complication.

A) bilateral
B) principal
C) valid OR
D) nonspecific

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	B

It is a routine part of most surgical procedures to close the operative wound(s), so it is not necessary to code this separately.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	True

Which of the following is a characteristic of ICD-9-CM procedure codes?

A) Codes are alphanumeric.
B) They are similar to ICD-10-PCS codes.
C) Codes are expandable.
D) Codes are 3 to 4 digits.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	0.0/0.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

10.

In ICD-9-CM, when an open appendectomy is performed, it is not necessary to use the approach or laparotomy code.

A) True
B) False

Cutting off all or a portion of the upper or lower extremities is:

A) Destruction
B) Fragmentation
C) Detachment
D) Resection

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	C

Medication management for drug dependence with methadone maintenance.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	HZ81ZZZ

In the extracorporeal assistance and performance section, the definition for performance is completely taking over a physiological function by extracorporeal means.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	True

Removal of drainage device from right pleural cavity,percutaneous approach.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	0WP930Z

Completely closing an orifice or lumen of a tubular body part is called:

A) Bypass
B) Restriction
C) Dilation
D) Occlusion

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

The thoracic nerve is in what body system?.

Feedback: The correct system is the Peripheral Nervous System.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	0.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	Peripheral Nervous System

Above-knee amputation, right midshaft femoral region

Feedback: The correct code assignment is: 0Y6C0Z2 In the index go to Detachment, Leg, upper, right which brings you go code: 0Y6C0Z. When you look this code up in the table, the qualifier (character 7) will be 2(Mid).

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	0.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	0Y6C0Z2

How many characters are in an ICD-10-PCS code?.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	7

The fourth character of an ICD-10-PCS code represents:

A) Body part
B) Approach
C) Section
D) Device

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	A

10.

The mapping files that crosswalk ICD-9-CM to ICD-10-PCS are known as:

A) GEMs
B) ACT
C) HIM
D) CMS

Which of the following is NOT true of status codes?

A) A status code is informative because the status may affect the course of treatment and its outcome.
B) A status code is distinct from a history code.
C) A status code should not be used with a diagnosis code from one of the body system chapters if the diagnosis code includes the information provided by the status code.
D) None of the above is correct.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

Patient is admitted to the hospital with fever and dehydration resulting from pneumonia. What codes are applicable?

A) 486, 276.51
B) 486, 276.51, 780.60
C) 780.60, 486, 276.50
D) 486, 276.51, 780.61

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	0.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	A

In ICD-10-CM, the Z codes are similar to ICD-9-CM V codes.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	True

When a V code is used as a diagnosis for a given procedure or a reason for the encounter, a procedure code is not necessary to identify that the procedure was performed.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	False

The patient was admitted for a takedown of colostomy. The patient underwent a colostomy 3 months ago after colon resection was performed for perforated diverticulitis. The patient was taken to the OR for colostomy reversal with end-to-end anastomosis. The patient still has a few diverticula of the large intestine and should follow a diverticulosis diet.Final Diagnosis: Diverticulosis.Procedure: Colostomy takedown.

A) 562.10, V55.3, 46.52
B) V55.3, 562.10, 46.52
C) 562.11, 46.52
D) V55.3, 562.10, 46.51

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	B

This 6-month-old infant was admitted with a febrile seizure. The patient had a temperature of 103 and had been started on antibiotics the day before for acute bilateral otitis media. The patient was discharged to the care of the parents on the following day.Final Diagnosis: Febrile seizure; fever due to acute bilateral otitis media.

A) R56.01, H66.90
B) R56.9, H66.93
C) R56.00, H66.93
D) R56.00, H66.90

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	C

Patient is admitted to the hospital with the “worst headache” he has ever had. Workup for aneurysm is performed. There is a strong family history of stroke. No cause for the headache is determined.ICD-9 ,. ICD-10,.

Feedback: The correct code assignment is: 784.0, V17.1 (R51, Z82.3) ICD-9: In the index Headache (784.0); History, Family, cerebrovascular disease V17.1. ICD-10: In the index, Headache (R51), History, Family(of), Stroke (cerebrovascular disease) Z82.3

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	0.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	Box 1: 784.0; Box 2: V17.1; Box 3: R51; Box 4: Z82.3

Patient was admitted to the hospital with right lower quadrant pain and nausea and vomiting. Patient had a low-grade fever. A diagnosis of acute appendicitis was made, and the patient was taken to the OR for removal of the appendix. What ICD-9 codes are applicable?

A) 540.9, 789.03, 787.01, 780.60, 47.01
B) 789.03, 787.01, 780.60, 540.9, 47.09
C) 540.9, 47.19
D) 540.9, 47.09

Feedback: The correct code assignment is 540.9, 47.19. In the Index, Appendicitis,acute (without mention of peritionitis). Signs or symptoms that are routinely with a disease process should not be assigned as additional codes, unless otherwise instructed by the classification. In the Index of Procedures Appendectomy (with drainage)47.09.

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	0.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

A screening code may be listed first if the reason for the visit is specifically a screening exam.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	True

10.

Which of the following is NOT a specific V code category?

A) Family history
B) Screening
C) Nutrition
D) Observation

A patient known to be positive for HIV is admitted to the hospital with high fever, malaise, and cough. PCP pneumonia is suspected. Tests reveal that the patient has infectious mononucleosis. Code this case using ICD-10

A) B20, B59
B) B59, B20
C) B27.90, Z21
D) Z21, B27.90

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	C

Gonococcal conjunctivitis is coded to:

A) 098.43
B) 098.49
C) 098.41
D) 098.40

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

If sepsis is present on admission and meets the definition of principal diagnosis, the systemic infection code should be assigned as the principal diagnosis.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	True

Code 042 is NEVER used once a patient develops AIDS.

A) True
B) False

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	False

A patient was admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. Upon examination, the patient was found to be severely dehydrated. She was given IV fluids to correct the hydration. In the assessment, the physician suspects gastroenteritis. After stool cultures were performed, it was determined that the patient has C. difficile colitis. Code this case using ICD-10

A) K52.9, E86.0, R19.7
B) A04.7, E86.0
C) A04.7, R19.7
D) K52.9, R19.7

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	B

A patient was admitted to the hospital with fever, cough, and low blood pressure. CXR shows infiltrates, and sputum culture is positive for MRSA. The patient is known to have type II diabetes. The discharge summary indicates that the patient was admitted and was given IV antibiotics for MRSA pneumonia. Code this using ICD-10.

A) Z16.11, J15.212
B) J15.212, E11.9
C) Z16.11, E11.9
D) J15.212, , E11.9

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

A patient is admitted with pneumonia. Physician suspects sepsis and orders blood cultures. Discharge summary lists principal diagnosis as pneumococcal sepsis. Code using ICD-9 CM.

A) 486, 038.2, 995.90
B) 995.92, 486, 038.9
C) 038.2, 995.91, 486
D) 486, 038.2, 995.91

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	C

Of the following medications, which is NOT an antifungal medication?

A) Nizoral
B) Grisactin
C) Lotrimin
D) Zovirax

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	D

ASCUS stands for:

A) atrial surgical cut under skin
B) atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance
C) acute sudden continuous unexplained significance
D) accident sudden care in unexplained setting

Table for Individual Question Feedback
Points Earned:	10.0/10.0
Correct Answer(s):	B

10.

Clostridium difficile is usually tested for in _____ when physicians suspect an infection.

A) saliva
B) blood
C) a stool specimen
D) none of the above

Babette's Definitely MAYBE!

12.11.2014

REVIEW II

No comments:

Post a Comment

I'll Follow You